Does my solution show that the language is uncomputable by applying rice's theorem?












1















If p is a Turing machine then L(p) = {x | p(x) = yes}.



Let A = {p | p is a Turing machine and L(p) is a finite set}.


Is A computable? Justify your answer.



So I'm trying to figure out how to solve this question and here is the answer that I've come up with:



(i) So we know that A is a non-trivial problem since some turing machines L(p) is a finite state and some turing machines where L(p) is not a finite state.



(ii) A respects equivalence when given any 2 equivalent turing machines p and q.



 p ε A ⇒ p is a turing machine and L(p) is a finite set

⇒ q is a turing machine and L(q) is a finite set

⇒ q ε A


Therefore, by applying Rice's theorem we can see that A is uncomputable.










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  • This looks good to me :)

    – Patrick87
    Nov 14 '18 at 20:38
















1















If p is a Turing machine then L(p) = {x | p(x) = yes}.



Let A = {p | p is a Turing machine and L(p) is a finite set}.


Is A computable? Justify your answer.



So I'm trying to figure out how to solve this question and here is the answer that I've come up with:



(i) So we know that A is a non-trivial problem since some turing machines L(p) is a finite state and some turing machines where L(p) is not a finite state.



(ii) A respects equivalence when given any 2 equivalent turing machines p and q.



 p ε A ⇒ p is a turing machine and L(p) is a finite set

⇒ q is a turing machine and L(q) is a finite set

⇒ q ε A


Therefore, by applying Rice's theorem we can see that A is uncomputable.










share|improve this question























  • This looks good to me :)

    – Patrick87
    Nov 14 '18 at 20:38














1












1








1








If p is a Turing machine then L(p) = {x | p(x) = yes}.



Let A = {p | p is a Turing machine and L(p) is a finite set}.


Is A computable? Justify your answer.



So I'm trying to figure out how to solve this question and here is the answer that I've come up with:



(i) So we know that A is a non-trivial problem since some turing machines L(p) is a finite state and some turing machines where L(p) is not a finite state.



(ii) A respects equivalence when given any 2 equivalent turing machines p and q.



 p ε A ⇒ p is a turing machine and L(p) is a finite set

⇒ q is a turing machine and L(q) is a finite set

⇒ q ε A


Therefore, by applying Rice's theorem we can see that A is uncomputable.










share|improve this question














If p is a Turing machine then L(p) = {x | p(x) = yes}.



Let A = {p | p is a Turing machine and L(p) is a finite set}.


Is A computable? Justify your answer.



So I'm trying to figure out how to solve this question and here is the answer that I've come up with:



(i) So we know that A is a non-trivial problem since some turing machines L(p) is a finite state and some turing machines where L(p) is not a finite state.



(ii) A respects equivalence when given any 2 equivalent turing machines p and q.



 p ε A ⇒ p is a turing machine and L(p) is a finite set

⇒ q is a turing machine and L(q) is a finite set

⇒ q ε A


Therefore, by applying Rice's theorem we can see that A is uncomputable.







automation discrete-mathematics turing-machines computability






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











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asked Nov 13 '18 at 23:15









ken6208ken6208

95




95













  • This looks good to me :)

    – Patrick87
    Nov 14 '18 at 20:38



















  • This looks good to me :)

    – Patrick87
    Nov 14 '18 at 20:38

















This looks good to me :)

– Patrick87
Nov 14 '18 at 20:38





This looks good to me :)

– Patrick87
Nov 14 '18 at 20:38












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